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Salesforce Security & Privacy Accredited Professional Exam Dumps July 2024

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Salesforce Security-and-Privacy-Accredited-Professional Sample Questions

Question # 1

Which option does not require My Domain? 

A. Password policies 
B. OpenID Connect into a Salesforce org 
C. SAML SSO into a Salesforce org 
D. The ability to brand the login page 


Question # 2

If a user is to have access to an object, but limit their access to individual fields in that object, how would a consultant address this? 

A. Use field level security or field permissions 
B. Use object level security or object permissions 
C. Use Apex managed sharing 
D. Use record level security settings 


Question # 3

What kind of threats can be detected by Event Monitoring Threat Detection? 

A. Session Hijacking, Credential Stuffing, Report Anomaly 
B. Cross Site Scripting, Phishing
 C. Login outside of IP Range, Failed Password Attempt 
D. Multiple login attempts, SQL injection 


Question # 4

Which three objects is monitored by the Consent Event Stream (CES)? 

A. Lead 
B. Authorization Form Consent 
C. Case 
D. Contact 
E. Opportunity 


Question # 5

How often are Security Center metrics updated? 

A. Daily 
B. Weekly 
C. Hourly
D. Every 30 days 


Question # 6

Which technology enables an admin to query for data or write custom code when enforcing a security policy? 

A. An apex based Transaction Security Policy 
B. Process Builder 
C. Threat Detection 
D. Real-Time Events 


Question # 7

Which category is NOT covered by Security Center? 

A. Permissions 
B. Event Monitoring 
C. Authentication 
D. Configuration 


Question # 8

Which tool does an admin use to enable streaming or storage of Real-Time Event Monitoring events? 

A. Platform Events 
B. Event Monitoring Analytics App 
C. Event Manager 
D. Transaction Security 


Question # 9

Where would the user go to connect a new tenant to the Security Center app? 

A. Setup/Manage Tenants 
B. Setup/Security Center 
C. Manage Security Tab 
D. Connected Tenants Tab 


Question # 10

Which two technologies are used to stream and store real-time event monitoring data? 

A. Platform Events and Big Objects 
B. Platform Events and Standard Objects 
C. Web Sockets and PostgreSQL 
D. CDC Events and Custom Objects 


Question # 11

What is the difference between Classic Encryption and Platform Encryption? 

A. Classic Encryption encrypts standard fields 
B. Platform Encryption encrypts custom fields only. Classic Encryption encrypts standard fields 
C. Platform Encryption is built on Classic Encryption 
D. Classic Encryption masks characters whereas Platform Encryption does not 


Question # 12

Which two options are available for masking data outside of objects and fields?

 A. Anonymize Case Comments 
B. Update Contacts 
C. Query All Entries 
D. Delete All Emails


Question # 13

Which masking option should the client use if they want to replace data with familiar values? 

A. Replace Using Pattern 
B. Replace with Random Characters 
C. Replace From Library 
D. Transform 


Question # 14

When is it necessary to set an object configuration to "Run in Serial Mode"? 

A. To mask objects that have multiple records with master detail or lookup relationships to the same record 
B. For each custom object that is part of the configuration 
C. Each time a configuration needs to be run more than one time 
D. When a user needs to replace sensitive data with a random number 


Question # 15

What format can Event Log Files be downloaded via API?

 A. XML
B. serialized 
C. JSON 
D. CSV 


Question # 16

When enabled for streaming, Real-Time Events are published where? 

A. To the EventMonitoring subscription channel 
B. To independent custom object streams 
C. To independent event subscription channels 
D. To independent Big Objects 


Question # 17

Which two options are available for masking data outside of objects and fields? 

A. Update Contacts 
B. Anonymize Case Comments 
C. Query All Entries 
D. Delete All Emails 


Question # 18

Which three MFA verification methods are supported by MuleSoft Anypoint Platform? 

A. SMS text messages 
B. Encryption Algorithm 
C. Built-in Authenticators 
D. Security Keys 
E. Salesforce Authenticator 


Question # 19

What are the actions that an admin can take with Transaction Security? 

A. Freeze User, End Session, require 2FA 
B. Obfuscate, Encrypt, de-identify 
C. Launch Workflow, Require Approval, Send SMS Text 
D. Block, Multi-Factor Authentication, and Notifications 


Question # 20

Within Data Mask, which operators are available for the DATETIME field type when using the data filter? 

A. is prior to, is within, is after 
B. is before, is within, is after 
C. is before, is after, is between 
D. yesterday, today, a month ago 


Question # 21

How do triggers and process automations deactivate before running a Data Mask configuration? 

A. Triggers and process automation do not need to be deactivated to run a configuration 
B. User will manually deactivate all automated actions before running a configuration 
C. User will need to run a script in the developer console to deactivate any automated processes 
D. While running a configuration, Data Mask will automatically disable triggers and process automation before the masking begins 


Question # 22

When is it necessary to set an object configuration to "Run in Serial Mode"?Each time a configuration needs to be run more than one time 

A. For each custom object that is part of the configuration 
B. To mask objects that have multiple records with master detail or lookup relationships to the same re 
C. When a user needs to replace sensitive data with a random number


Question # 23

Which three are key value points for Security Center? 

A. Simplify Security Management 
B. Decrease Storage Requirements 
C. Increase Performance 
D. Respond to Threats and Anomalies Faster 
E. Gain Visibility to Drive Insights 


Question # 24

How does a user schedule automated runs for a policy? 

A. Execute an APEX script in the Developer Console 
B. Set email notifications in Salesforce for when to run a Policy 
C. Scheduling of automated executions is not an included feature 
D. Under Run Frequency, indicate how often you want the policy to run. 


Question # 25

How frequently can a user gather encryption statistics? 

A. Once every month per objectOnce every 24 hours per object 
B. Once every hour per object
C. Once every week per object 
D. Via Field Level Security settings, a Salesforce user has view access to a field that is encrypted via Platform Encryption. 


Question # 26

What will the user see in the Salesforce user interface when they view a page that includes the field on it? 

A. The field label followed by a message indicating that the field value is encrypted 
B. The field label followed by the unencrypted field value 
C. The field label followed by eight asterisks 
D. The field label followed by 256 characters of cipher text 


Question # 27

What is the primary difference between Data Mask and Data Encryption? 

A. Data encryption is used for masking data in a production environment 
B. Data encryption is an add on feature to the Data Mask product 
C. Data Mask prevents malicious attackers from accessing or interacting with sensitive data at rest in the data center. 
D. Data masking prevents developers or other users from viewing sensitive data in the user interface or exporting it as plain text 


Question # 28

Which two date types are available when filtering on a condition that has the DATETIME object field?  

A. Relative 
B. Absolute 
C. Within 
D. Outside 


Question # 29

What does Salesforce Data Mask do? 

A. Encrypt Salesforce Sandbox data 
B. Change the color scheme of metrics within a production org based on predetermined rules 
C. Anonymize data at rest within a production org 
D. Anonymize, delete, or pseudonymize sensitive Salesforce sandbox data 


Question # 30

For products built on the Salesforce Platform, how is MFA enabled? 

A. On the Identity Verification page in Setup, select the Enable Multi-Factor Authentication checkbox 
B. Create a permission set that includes the "Multi-Factor Authentication for User Interface Logins' permission, then apply the permission set to desired users 
C. GMFA is enabled by default, each user simply registers a verification method from their personal settings 
D. Click the Enable button in the Launch stage of the Multi-Factor Authentication Assistant 


Question # 31

How does SF control access to its APIs? 

A. OAuth Flows 
B. OAuth Everywhere 
C. Connected Apps 
D. Customer 360 API Connect 


Question # 32

After a user completes setup of a portability policy, what API needs to be run to compile the identified PII? 

A. SOAP API
 B. Metadata API 
C. REST API 
D. Portability API 


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Salesforce Security-and-Privacy-Accredited-Professional Frequently Asked Questions


What is the Security-and-Privacy-Accredited-Professional (SPAP) exam?
Answer: The SPAP exam is a certification exam for professionals seeking accreditation in security and privacy.
What topics are covered on the SPAP exam?
Answer: The SPAP  Security-and-Privacy-Accredited-Professional exam covers a range of topics related to security and privacy, such as security policies and standards, risk management, data protection and privacy principles, security controls and technologies, and incident response and disaster recovery.


What is the format of the SPAP exam?
Answer: The format of the SPAP exam may vary depending on the organization administering it. It may be administered online or in-person, and typically consists of multiple choice or scenario-based questions.
How long is the SPAP certification valid?
Answer: The length of validity for the SPAP certification may vary depending on the organization. Some organizations may require certification holders to re-certify every few years through continuing education or by retaking the exam.
What are the benefits of obtaining the SPAP certification?
Answer: Obtaining the SPAP certification can demonstrate to employers and clients that a professional has a strong understanding of security and privacy concepts, as well as the ability to apply that knowledge in practical situations. This can help to enhance a professional's career prospects and increase their earning potential.
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